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Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Last Updated: 23.06.2025 14:11

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

You'll usually find your answer there.

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Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

Why are girls supposed to have a stereotypical "hourglass" body shape, and why if you dont have an "hourglass" body shape you get treated differently? It doesnt make any sense to me.

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

There's no rule.

How does the media determine which statements made by President Trump to fact-check and which ones to not fact-check?

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.